I have noticed that almost all the married men that are doing this is because they are not getting sex with their S/O regardless of the reason. I don’t think couples are still getting it on after 25/30yrs of marriage.
So is it fair to say that if a client marry a provider, years later you probably will end up looking for action again because you are not getting any at home again…I know “the getting married part is very very rare – so maybe we can downgrade it to living together – but bear in mind the dynamics are different between living together and being married together, “. But would you guys/gals agrees that this assumption is correct? …..